[faithandlife] Re: [FaithandLife] ISAIAH 7__14 INTEGRITY IN TRANSLATIONS

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From: <gdvw@...>
Date: Tue, 31 Dec 2002 00:51:07 -0000 (UTC)
> Whata fascinating exchange of ideas. I cannot imagine anyone in any
Anglican seminary even knowing what they are on about-let alone caring.
How times change! GDVW+
>
>
> Brothers+
>
> In preparing for Advent and Christmas messages, I came across some old
> correspondence on a discussion list regarding Isaiah 7:14 and the
> Messianic  Prophecies.
>
> This particular exchange reminded me of  debates I heard nearly a
> half-century ago in regard to Isaiah 7:14.
>
> The bit below is not a conservative-liberal or a Bible-believer versus
> agnostic-atheist debate.  Below is the relatively recent correspondence
> between two Bible believing very conservative Christians.  Both believe
> the  Incarnation and the Virgin birth, but differ in regard to
> translating Isaiah  7:14.
>
> George has his theology down and knows what Isaiah 7:14 means.  Wayne
> believes as George does, but is wrestling with his integrity as a
> translator.  Both try hard to be nice.
>
> I suspect that among our parishoners there are many who have no clear
> idea  of what is involved and have no idea of what they are missing,
> which I will  explore in another post.
>
> Charles+
> --------------------------------------------------------------
>
> From "Wayne "
> Date : 19 Dec
>
>>Wayne wrote - some time ago -> >I  bought the new translation, "The
>> Message, of the Prophets in the Hebrew Bible." The translator, Eugene
>> Peterson, finesses the issues in Isaiah  7:14 rather well, I think:  "A
>>  girl who is presently a virgin will get pregnant. She'll bear a
> son and name him lmmanuel ["God-With-Us"]."
> --------------------------------------------------------------->
> George wrote:
>
>>Wayne,  I understand that the authors of Isaiah 7:14 intended
>>compenatration, called by some "dual fulfillment."
> -----------------------------------
>
> Wayne
> Yes, I know this position. I think it was basically what I was taught
> growing up in church and at Bible school, that is, if I was even taught
> that  there was any possibility other than that Isaiah was
> prophecying only about the virgin birth of the messiah.
>
> Your understanding is a fair one, but it is, IMO, not one which we
> should  translate for Isa. 7:14, and I know you haven't stated that. I
> think it is  fair enough to translation the verse so that it can
> allow for dual fulfillment, but I think Isaiah himself was only
> prophecying  about a boy to be born who would be a sign to King Ahaz.
>
> I also believe that the HS chose to modify that original authorial
> intent in  Matt. 1:23 to make the OT passage christological, and the HS
> had that right.  Many other NT quotes from the Hebrew Bible have the
> same christological  customization. That still doesn't change how we
> need to translate the OT  passage, IMO. I have come to believe that each
> passage in the Bible needs to  be translated according to original
> authorial intent. Translating OT  passages on the basis of NT
> interpretation goes beyond the scope of translation, IMO, into the the
> sphere of application.
> ------------------------------------
>
> George
>>  Peterson's translation  does not deal with the distant aspect of the
>>prophecy but makes it sound  like Isaiah and the Holy Spirit were
>> speaking  only of  Mahershalahashbaz.
> ------------------------------------
>
> Wayne
> This is my current understanding of Isa. 7:14 within its context. As a
> translator, I cannot look forward in time several hundred years and
> translate from that POV. (But I should add that if I see sufficient
> evidence  within the Isaiah context that Isaiah was likely giving a dual
> prophecy, I'd definitely want to buy that interpretation. I just don't
> want  to be guided by my personal theology, rather than "the facts" of
> the OT  passage, which I must limit myself to as a translation.)
> --------------------------------------
>
> George
>>   The expression "presently a virgin" eliminates Mary  the Mother of
>> Jesus
>>because she was not yet born at the time of Isaiah's  writing.
>> Actually,  I think Peterson does finesse the issue quite well in that
>> he  uses both  words suggested by differing exegetes.  I think he
>> finesses it better than  he translates it, I'm afraid!
> ---------------------------------------
>
> Wayne
> It could be. I suspect he was trying to avoid the problems that the RSV
> and  other translations have faced when they translated almah only as
> 'young  woman.' I'm not sure NavPres, a conservative publisher, would
> have accepted  that as the primary translation.
>
> It's tough translating for English speakers!
>
> Have a good week, George,
> Wayne
> ---------------------------------------------------------------------
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