----- Original Message ----- 
From: "John Reisinger" <jreisinger@...>
(3)  Polygamy is understood as a sin because the text says so in Genesis
2:24 and there
is no warrant for imposing discontinuity where there is none.


I would feel better if this were "the text implicitly says so" in Genesis
2:24 (one man/one woman excludes ANY and ALL other derivations for marriage
by implication) and there is no warrant for imposing discontinuity where
there is none.

Obviously, Genesis 2:24 does not use the word polygamy so the said truth is
an implied truth.

Chad Bresson
Xenia, OH