While I agree with what you are saying, does those two
verses say that there is no more speaking today? 

Spoken which in the Greek is laleo. Do we find it in a
tense which mean did but no longer does or does it not
say that?

Is there any Scripture that prohibits or mutes God
from being able to speak to someone today? 

Harry

--- Jen Epstein <jlepstein@...> wrote:

> Harry:
> > I know a professor at a
> > reformed seminary that believes that God still
> uses
> > supernatural means to direct His people and does
> not
> > rule out those who claim to have been guided
> verbally
> > by God just because he hasn't been.
> 
> All experiences must be tested against Scriptural
> truths.  We do not  
> create doctrines from experience.
> 
> Heb. 1:1-2  God, who at various times and in various
> ways spoke in  
> time past to the fathers by the prophets, has in
> these last days  
> spoken to us by His Son,
> 
> I'm a firm cessationist as well.  I've heard tons of
> stories and seen  
> no proof.
> 
> 
> Blessings,
> Jen Epstein
> http://jensgems.wordpress.com
> 
> Every saint has a past and every sinner has a
> future.
> 
> 
> --
> Read the Sound of Grace pages at
> http://www.soundofgrace.com
> 
> To unsubscribe, send ANY message to:
> soundofgrace-unsubscribe@...
> 
> To view our online archive go to our web page at
> http://www.associate.com/groups/soundofgrace
> 
> 
> 



      ____________________________________________________________________________________
Be a better friend, newshound, and 
know-it-all with Yahoo! Mobile.  Try it now.  http://mobile.yahoo.com/;_ylt=Ahu06i62sR8HDtDypao8Wcj9tAcJ