[soundofgrace] Re: [soundofgrace] RE: pagan children called 'innocents'???

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From: "John Reisinger" <jreisinger@...>
Date: Sat, 31 Jan 2004 11:14:03 -0500
---- Original Message -----
From: "Chris B. McKinney" <cmck@...>
Subject: RE: [soundofgrace] RE: pagan children called 'innocents'???


> > JGR said: The heart of Romans 5:12-14 is that God's judgment,
> > evidenced in death,
> > rests on an infant because of his union with Adam. The infant is
actually
> > guilty in the sight of God and worthy of death the day they are
> > born. Romans
> > 5:12-14 means beyond question that the infant is responsible to
> > God for its
> > sin nature because it is on the ground of the sin nature that the infant
> > dies.
> >
> > Job 4:7   "Remember now, who ever perished being innocent? Or
> > where were the upright ever cut off?"  (NKJ)
>
> Chris responds:  Except for Jesus, you mean?  He may have experienced
God's judgment, but he  was still innocent.
>
> Or did he inherit the sinful nature required to deserve God's judgment
> through Mary?
>
JGR:  I do not believe that Christ "perished." He indeed died under the
judgment of God but instead of perishing he destroyed death. He did not
inherit a sinful nature from any place including from Mary. He did take on
himself HUMAN nature from Mary but not a SINFUL nature. He had sin imputed
to him but never had either a sinful nature and actual personal sin.

Some one has well said. "There is a difference between sin IN us and sin ON
us. We have sin IN (a sinful nature) in us and also have sin ON us be actual
transgression. Christ had sin ON him by imputation but He never had sin IN
him.

JGR