Am reading 1 John and came across 2:6 where we are to walk as Jesus walked and 3:4 where we are told transgression is breaking the law-can we really prove a)that we are not to keep Torah as Jesus did to the letter and b) whether John was not really meaning Torah when he spoke of the law.In other words here we have NT teaching that seems to place us under the law.
Julian

Sincerly, Julian
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