JR wisely asks: "the question is whether Scripture presents justification as a two fold imputation, namely, (a) our sin imputed to Christ, and (b) his earned righteousness, earned by his active obedience to the law, imputed to us."
I agree that is the question, did the completely righteous Son of God earn additional righteousness by His active obedience to the law of which that earned righteousness is imputed to us? Or is that teaching a relic? Do we look to men, tradition, and theological systems or do we look to the Scriptures? "For if righteousness is by law [vicariously or otherwise], then Christ died for nothing" (Gal. 3:21)
What is the Gospel? We read, “For Christ once suffered for sins, the Just for the unjust, that He might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh . . .” (1 Peter 3:18); “. . . being justified by His blood we shall be saved from wrath through Him” (Rom.5:9); “So Christ was once offered to bear the sin of many . . .”(Heb. 9:28). To this regard our Lord states, “Now is my soul troubled; and what shall I say? Father save Me from this hour. But for this cause came I unto this hour “(John 12:27). Scripture is clear that it was upon the cross that our Lord suffered for our sins and bore the wrath of God against sin.
Gal 2:21 ESV "I do not nullify the grace of God, for if justification[Or [righteousness] ] were through the law, then Christ died for no purpose." "God is the source of your life in Christ Jesus, whom God made our wisdom and our righteousness and sanctification and redemption." 1Cor 1:30
"Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousness" Hebrews 10:5 "when Christ came into the world, he said, "Sacrifices and offerings you have not desired, but a body have you prepared for me; 6in burnt offerings and sin offerings you have taken no pleasure. 7Then I said, 'Behold, I have come to do your will, O God, as it is written of me in the scroll of the book.'" Philippians 2:8"And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross." It is by this obedience to the Father, Paul tells us, that "many will be made righteous."
JR asks "In other words is vicarious active obedience an essential component of Covenant Theology." M Kline declares "This grand truth is a fruit of covenant theology." I would have to agree because it is necessary link for the covenant of works that they propose was entered into in the garden between God and Adam. It is a house of cards. Padeobaptism, etc all building upon each other.
Harry
John Reisinger <24jreisinger26@...> wrote:
It seems to me there is bit of confusion in this thread.
(1) No one questions the truth that Christ actively kept, or obeyed, the law.
(2) The real question is whether that obedience was vicarious in the same sense as his cross work
Likewise,
(1) all agree that everything Christ did in his humanity, including perfectly obeying the law, was essential.
(2) the question is whether Scripture presents justification as a two fold imputation, namely, (a) our sin imputed to Christ, and (b) his earned righteousness, earned by his active obedience to the law, imputed to us.
I have often said in preaching, "If all Christ did for us was pay our sin debt, we could still not go to heaven. We also need a positive righteousness. Jesus was born under the law and kept the law perfectly thereby earning the righteousness that the law promised. This earned righteousness is imputed to us."
The question of a Covenant of Works with Adam has been raised in several posts. It would seem to me that a Covenant of Works with Adam necessitates a doctrine of the active obedience of Christ earning the righteousness that Adam failed to earn. Is the reverse also true? If we hold to a doctrine of the active obedience of Christ vicariously earning our righteousness must we also hold to a Covenant of Works with Adam? In other words is vicarious active obedience an essential component of Covenant Theology.
I think Mike's last post and Harry's response are getting to the heart of the issue. JGR
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