--- H Dorrington <hjdinfl@...> wrote:
> Romans 3
> 20For by works of the law no human being will be justified in his sight, since
> through the law comes knowledge of sin.21But now the righteousness of God has been
> manifested apart from the law, although the Law and the Prophets bear witness to
> it-- 22the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe.

Nowhere does it say here that Christ righteousness was apart from the law.

> We only understand righteousness because of the law

This is only half true, depending on how you're using the word "law" here.  Paul
tells us that Gentiles understand righteousness because of the law written on their
hearts and that Gentiles and Jews are both condemned because both have the same
law... one on their hearts, the other in stone.  The only difference between Jew and
Gentile, according to Paul, is the amount of revelation concerning the law.  Paul
anticipates your objection by going out of his way (Romans 5:13,14 is a brilliant
aside... Paul anticipates precisely the objection that Gentiles had no law, but
stepping out of his argument to reject that view) to show how the law is the same
for both.

>before the law Christ was still righteous. 

Now we've come full circle to what I consider to be the inherent gnosticism in your
view.  Christ was both righteous and became righteous.  The eschatology/Christology
of the gospel writers simply doesn't allow for the pre-existent Son of God to trump
The Messiah's humanity at every turn.  This is precisely why John wrote his
epistles.  Christ's humanity isn't merely defined by flesh and blood because
humanity isn't merely defined by flesh and blood.  Humanity is also defined by will,
cognition, and emotion.  If Christ is not also defined by those characteristics of
humanity, he simply isn't human.

Christ was inherently righteous (John 1:4,5) and increasingly righteous (Luke
2:40,52).  The obedience that The Messiah "learned" was truly "learned".

Chad Bresson
Xenia, OH