----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Mark K LaCour" <lacour1@...>
> MARK:  Romanism?  Romans 8:4 states:  ". . . so that the requirement of
> the Law might be fulfilled IN US (not FOR us), who do not WALK according
> to the flesh but ACCORDING TO THE SPIRIT."  Paul even equates LABORING
> with the grace of God in 1 Cor. 15:10.

Ephesians 2:8-10.  Colossians 2:19.  Sanctification, like justification, is 
a monergistic work of the Spirit.

> MARK:  So if there are NO conditions to be met in order for grace to be
> present, then how come SIN is a condition mentioned in Romans 5:20 for
> receiving grace?

Romans 5:20 doesn't treat sin as a condition for grace.  It's merely making 
a statement of fact that because man has sinned (something not true in the 
pre-fall garden) man needs grace.

But... even if you're right about sin being a condition for grace, you've 
just proven my point: Since Adam had yet to sin, he hadn't met the condition 
necessary for grace... so there's no grace in the pre-fall, non-sin gardenic 
formula.

> Adam "did his job."

Yep.  And according to Romans 6:23, he "earned" his wages.  So... how is 
death a "wage" and life wouldn't have been?  What you say about one, *must* 
be true for the other.

And how is it gracious to have a death threat hanging on your every act of 
obedience?

Chad Bresson
Xenia, OH