Thanks ( Jim, Ian) for the responses to my earlier question.
I can't resist a couple questions on this topic:
1. Why is the Holy Spirit not mentioned once in Romans 7:7:25 and 14 times
in the first 14 verses of Romans 8. For such a careful logical writer as
Paul (not to mention the H.S.) this is deliberate.
2. Who is the first marriage to in Romans 7? The law? Then who is the second
husband? Christ? Is Paul's usual method to state something and then work it
out in detail?
3. So if Roman's 7 describes marriage to Christ (in very unflattering terms)
then who is the dear lady married to in Romans 8?
4. Perhaps her husband went through a conversion and now life is easier for
her?
5. Why does Paul end with a battle between the mind and flesh?
6. How is that different from Gal. 5:17 where he also describes FAILURE but
in a battle between the Spirit and the flesh?
7. Is it possible for a man who is not regenerate, but convicted of sin, to
experience "delighting" and agreeing with the law?
Example: I tell two friends , Mr. Goat and Mr. Sheep all about the sins of
the heart and how God judges. Up until now he has been confident and assured
as a historic Christian. All at once both come under conviction. Both
struggle and feely badly about. Both clearly agree in and delight (when
successful) in keeping the law. Both are miserable when they fail. One
presses on to Christ and liberty. The other finds the experience to be,
eventually, negative and turns back.
8. Paul slanders the law (in the eyes of Jews) in 5:20. Is Romans 7 an
explanation of the purpose of the law, as well as a vindication of the law,
rather than a description of average daily living as a Christian.
9. If Romans 7 describes average daily living, what does Romans 8 describe?
Perhaps preterism? ( :) )
10. When Paul uses the word carnal in 8, to describe the unsaved, and a
slave to sin in 6 to describe the unsaved, how could he be so careless as to
use BOTH in one sentence to describe himself as a mature believer?
11. Why would Paul do that when he is so careful with words he even defines
"brethren" in Romans 9 to avoid misconceptions?
Just a few questions - I have more....
William
-----Original Message-----
From: moe.bergeron@... [mailto:moe.bergeron@...]
Sent: 13 October 2004 14:41
To: soundofgrace@...
Subject: Re: [soundofgrace] Romans 7
This is what I suspect is going on. The guy in Romans 7 is a pre-New
Covenant Pentecost era brother. He's regenerate and loves the law but he is
powerless to walk in it as he would desire, at least not until the event
that defines Romans 8 comes along.
With Romans 8 there's a newness brought to that same man through the Spirit
Indwelling Inscription accompanied by all of the dynamics resulting from
such a new relationship. He experiences a shift that is brought to pass
through the ushering in of the New Covenant era by the indwelling Spirit of
Christ or better yet, the Triune God. It's the very relationship the
prophets and Jesus had predicted (John's Gospel - The Book of Glory).
So then,,,, Chapters 7 and 8 are not about who was that man. It's all about
an event that has radically changed the dynamics of holy living for that
man. It's the IN CHRIST relationship we as New Covenant believers are to
walk in.
There is therefore NOW no condemnation to those who are IN Christ Jesus, who
do NOT walk according to the flesh, but according to the Spirit. For the law
of the Spirit of life has made me free from the law of sin and death. (Rom
8:1-2)
C'mon guys this is New Covenant stuff and it transforms!
Moe
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