[soundofgrace] Re: [soundofgrace] re: Christ as Law

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From: "jamie Houghton" <j_jamie@...>
Date: Tue, 30 Nov 2004 09:00:06 +0800
Chad, I've been reading your post for a little while now but I have no idea 
what IMHO means.
Sorry for my think headedness!
Jamie

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Chad Richard Bresson" <breusswane@...>
To: <soundofgrace@...>
Sent: Tuesday, November 30, 2004 4:09 AM
Subject: Re: [soundofgrace] re: Christ as Law


> ----- Original Message ----- 
> From: <malajaa@...>
>>You overemphasize the presence of Law
>> in the New Testament, and ignore, and even insult the use of Paul's
>> statements in Romans, Galatians, Colossians, and etc.
>>The progress of
>> revelation demands that we give Paul some priority in my opinion.
>
> So... in the progress of redemptive history, was 1 Corinthians 9:21 & 1 
> Corinthians 14:34 written before or after Romans and Galatians and 
> Colossians?   :-)
>
> I don't believe I have ignored anything.  It's the traditional/classic CT 
> explanation that ignores Romans 6, IMHO (Kline does not, IMHO).  I'm 
> merely suggesting that both are true at the same time... under the law of 
> Christ/no longer under law.  But it's also true I'm not willing to ignore 
> the numerous instances in which the OT law is referenced in present tense 
> of the NT.  We have to account for them.
>
>>When Paul says,
>> 'you are not under this, but you are under this' he sounds awfully
>> 'Greek' doesn't he?
>
> It would not have sounded Greek to his original audience.
>
>>By the way are we talking
>> about Buddah or Christ?  In answer to this question I suggest a single
>> meaning hermeneutic.
>
> Christ.  I'm not sure I know what you're getting at, but at the very 
> least, even Christ and the NT authors acknowledged the intended double 
> meaning of the OT authors (1 Cor. 10:4, nearly all of Heb. 11 - esp. v. 
> 26, Matt. 12:40, John 8:56, Matt. 2:15, Mark 14:34, etc.).
>
> Chad Bresson
> Xenia, OH
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