Do you ever find any blessing in the canon (other than Genesis 1-3) outside
of any covenant?  Ever?

It could be that this is mere observation on the covenantalist's part,
rather than a forced eisogetic agenda.

Chad


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "John Reisinger" <24jreisinger26@...>
To: <soundofgrace@...>
Sent: Saturday, December 11, 2004 8:50 PM
Subject: Re: [soundofgrace] infant baptism


> Chad: I think the WCF has been understood to mean "no covenant - no
> blessing."  Likewise, I do not think any of the proof texts come close to
> proving the point the Confession is stating.
>
>
>
> 1. The distance between God and the creature is so great, that although
> reasonable creatures do owe obedience unto him as their Creator, yet they
> could never have any fruition of Him as their blessedness and reward, but
by
> some voluntary condescension on God's part, which he hath been pleased to
> express by way of covenant.[a]
>
> [a]. Isa. 40:13-17; Job 9:32-33; Ps. 113:5-6; Job 22:2-3; Job 35:7-8; Luke
> 17:10; Acts 17:24-25
>
>
> > ----- Original Message -----
> > From: "John Reisinger" <24jreisinger26@...>
> > > Correct. Historically, the covenant of works with Adam is an absolute
> > > necessity in a system that states the only way that God can bless man
in
> > via
> > > a coveenant. God could not have blessed Adam apart from a covenant,
JGR
> >
> > It's not the *only* way God can bless man... it's just the means he
chose
> to
> > do so in most instances.
> >
> > Chad Bresson
> > Xenia, OH
> >
> > --
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