[soundofgrace] Re: [soundofgrace] Should we drop all Christian music and sing only the Psalms?

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From: H Dorrington <hjdinfl@...>
Date: Sat, 30 Jul 2005 18:12:07 -0700 (PDT)
Hi Jim
Did you have to address that question to me? lol
Hope what the early church did and what God has commanded are in harmony.
We have no record of the early church meeting in "church" buildings, having
electrical lights or even parking lots. No power point, pulpits, or pews... but is
their usage wrong? I don't think so.  
 
I believe that John has addressed the regulative pricniple. We often try to limit that
which we have been given liberty in our freedom in Christ.
 
Harry

James G Drickamer <jldrick@...> wrote:
Harry,

> "Are we wrong to sing in our worship anything other than the Psalms?"

JD: Apparently the practice urged/commanded by Paul was to sing psalms,
hymns, and spiritual songs, as these two verses show:

Eph:5:19: Speaking to yourselves in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs,
singing and making melody in your heart to the Lord;

Col:3:16: Let the word of Christ dwell in you richly in all wisdom;
teaching and admonishing one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual
songs, singing with grace in your hearts to the Lord.

> I would have to agree that there are many "hymns" in our hymn books 
> that I scratch my head and wonder where they came up with that. I can't

> sing them. I have to stand there quiet as I can't sing what I don't 
> believe. On the other hand the Psalms are all the inspired Word of God
and 
> written to be sung...Any thoughts?

JD: If we follow the regulative principle, we will sing more than just
the psalms. We do not insist that pastors read sermons that were
originally preached by apostles. They expound on the word of God in
their own words, don't they? Wouldn't consistency
require that if we are not going to sing hymns and spiritual songs that
expound God's word in the words of the songwriter, then pastors should
not expound on God's word either? 

I need clarification on something. If we do follow the
regulative principle, does that mean we follow what God commanded or just
the way the early church did things?
For example, we have no clear record to New Testament churches using
musical instruments in worship. Does that mean God does not want us to
use them? Or does that tell us that the New Testament churches did not
have musical instruments to use? Or since musical instruments were not
forbidden by God, that their use is an adiaphora?

Jim

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