There are many who  hold to both a covenant of works with Adam in the garden as well as the active obedience of Christ to the law earning us righteousness as Christians.
 
Did Christ actively obey the Law?

Deuteronomy 22:22 "If a man is found sleeping with another man's wife, both the man who slept with her and the woman must die."

Leviticus 20:10 "If a man commits adultery with another man's wife--with the wife of his neighbor--both the adulterer and the adulteress must be put to death."

That is the Law. Now contrast that to what is recorded in John 8:1-11. Did Christ actively obey and submit to the law or did He demonstrate His superiority to the Law? If He was obedient to the Law then why was the woman forgiven and allowed to live? Would not Jesus have been able to cast the first stone?

I know that some might dismiss this question saying that some of the older manuscripts do not have this account and if all of them did not have this account I would have already hit my delete key.

Harry

 


		
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