Doesn't your question imply that 'Obedience' to the Law is = 'Enforcement' 
of the Law?
But was he under obligation to enforce it upon her in order to be obedient 
to it himself?

Jesus could have cast the first stone, but he chose to receive it from the 
father on the cross rather than impose it upon the elect woman.  The Law was 
still fulfilled in Christ's suffering the cost rather than the woman, no?


Or am I not following your logic?

Steve



----- Original Message ----- 
From: "H Dorrington" <hjdinfl@...>
To: <soundofgrace@...>
Sent: Thursday, August 25, 2005 12:59 PM
Subject: [soundofgrace] Did Christ's active obedience to the law earn us 
righteousness?


> There are many who  hold to both a covenant of works with Adam in the 
> garden as well as the active obedience of Christ to the law earning us 
> righteousness as Christians.
>
> Did Christ actively obey the Law?
>
> Deuteronomy 22:22 "If a man is found sleeping with another man's wife, 
> both the man who slept with her and the woman must die."
>
> Leviticus 20:10 "If a man commits adultery with another man's wife--with 
> the wife of his neighbor--both the adulterer and the adulteress must be 
> put to death."
>
> That is the Law. Now contrast that to what is recorded in John 8:1-11. Did 
> Christ actively obey and submit to the law or did He demonstrate His 
> superiority to the Law? If He was obedient to the Law then why was the 
> woman forgiven and allowed to live? Would not Jesus have been able to cast 
> the first stone?
>
> I know that some might dismiss this question saying that some of the older 
> manuscripts do not have this account and if all of them did not have this 
> account I would have already hit my delete key.
>
> Harry
>
>
>
>
>
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