I'm not sure I agree HIS obedience to the law required Him to be the one to
enforce it. They were testing him to see if He'd hold her to God's law as a
priest should.
Did the Levitical priests have to atone for their failure to hold every
Israelite fully accountable???
But that aside:
He DID obey the law by willfully enduring the cross and death for her sin.
Life paid. Obedience accomplished. Law fulfilled. Forgiveness given
within constraints of the law.
Mat 5:17 "Do not think that I came to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I did
not come to abolish but to fulfill.
18 "For truly I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not the
smallest letter or stroke shall pass from the Law until all is accomplished.
Don't misunderstand me, I believe He is the Law in it's truest form and the
complete fulfillment of it as well, but He didn't just dismiss it because
He's superior, He came to fulfill it.
Steve
----- Original Message -----
From: "H Dorrington" <hjdinfl@...>
To: <soundofgrace@...>
Sent: Thursday, August 25, 2005 2:08 PM
Subject: Re: [soundofgrace] Did Christ's active obedience to the law earn us
righteousness?
> To be obedient to the Law He would have had to put her to death and that
> is why they brought her to Him. According to the Law she "must die" /
> "must be put to death." (Sounds like no exceptions.)
>
> Deuteronomy 22:22 "If a man is found sleeping with another man's wife,
> both the man who slept with her and the woman must die."
>
> Leviticus 20:10 "If a man commits adultery with another man's wife--with
> the wife of his neighbor--both the adulterer and the adulteress must be
> put to death."
>
> Did He actively obey the Law by not seeing it done when the Law clearly
> states what must happen? Or did He show His superiority to the Law by
> doing what only God can do by forgiving her?
>
> Harry
>
>
> Steve Fuchs <SteveF_MS@...> wrote:
> Doesn't your question imply that 'Obedience' to the Law is = 'Enforcement'
> of the Law?
> But was he under obligation to enforce it upon her in order to be obedient
> to it himself?
>
> Jesus could have cast the first stone, but he chose to receive it from the
> father on the cross rather than impose it upon the elect woman. The Law
> was
> still fulfilled in Christ's suffering the cost rather than the woman, no?
>
>
> Or am I not following your logic?
>
> Steve
>
>
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "H Dorrington"
> To:
> Sent: Thursday, August 25, 2005 12:59 PM
> Subject: [soundofgrace] Did Christ's active obedience to the law earn us
> righteousness?
>
>
> > There are many who hold to both a covenant of works with Adam in the
> > garden as well as the active obedience of Christ to the law earning us
> > righteousness as Christians.
> >
> > Did Christ actively obey the Law?
> >
> > Deuteronomy 22:22 "If a man is found sleeping with another man's wife,
> > both the man who slept with her and the woman must die."
> >
> > Leviticus 20:10 "If a man commits adultery with another man's wife--with
> > the wife of his neighbor--both the adulterer and the adulteress must be
> > put to death."
> >
> > That is the Law. Now contrast that to what is recorded in John 8:1-11.
> > Did
> > Christ actively obey and submit to the law or did He demonstrate His
> > superiority to the Law? If He was obedient to the Law then why was the
> > woman forgiven and allowed to live? Would not Jesus have been able to
> > cast
> > the first stone?
> >
> > I know that some might dismiss this question saying that some of the
> > older
> > manuscripts do not have this account and if all of them did not have
> > this
> > account I would have already hit my delete key.
> >
> > Harry
>
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