H Dorrington <hjdinfl@...> wrote: Calvin: "That Christ, by his obedience, truly >purchased and merited grace for us with the Father, is accurately inferred from several >passages of Scripture. I take it for granted, that if Christ satisfied for our sins, if he paid the >penalty due by us, if he appeased God by his obedience; in fine, if he suffered the just for the >unjust, salvation was obtained for us by his righteousness; which is just equivalent to >meriting." Methinks you're attempting to interpret a 16th century statement using 21st century lingo. Calvin tells us what he means by "grace" in the last sentence: "grace" = "salvation". Did Chrits merit his own grace or his own salvation? No. To suggest Calvin says so is to misrepresent the overall idea he is presenting: Christ merited our salvation for us. It wasn't his grace. It wasn't his salvation. It was our grace and our salvation. Chad Richard Bresson Xenia, OH http://breusswane.blogspot.com/ -- Read the Sound of Grace pages at http://www.soundofgrace.com To unsubscribe, send ANY message to: soundofgrace-unsubscribe@... To view our online archive go to our web page at http://www.associate.com/groups/soundofgrace